Muslimah

Question I have a question concerning fasting, during the fast is it permissable to say I love u to a husband, My husband asked me to say it during fast and I said to him that it is not permissable, he said it is allowed? Answer Praise be to Allaah. There is nothing wrong with a man playing with his wife, or a wife with her husband, by saying words while fasting, on the condition that there is no danger of either of them climaxing. If there is the danger that they may reach climax, as in the case of one who has strong desires and who fears that if he plays with his wife his fast may be broken by his ejaculating, then it is not permissible for him to do that, because he is exposing his fast to the risk of being broken. The same applies if he fears that he may emit prostatic fluid (madhiy). (al-Sharh al-Mumti’, 6/390). The evidence that it is permissible to kiss and play with one’s wife, if one is sure that there is no risk of reaching climax, is the report narrated by al-Bukhaari (1927)...

Question  What is the ruling on taking off hijaab and uncovering the face when traveling abroad in obedience to my mother’s demands, on the grounds that I attract unwelcome attention? Answer Praise be to Allaah. It is not permissible for you or for any other woman to take off your hijaab in the kaafir countries, just as that is not permissible in any Muslim country. It is obligatory to observe hijaab in front of non-mahram males whether they are Muslims or kaafirs; indeed it is more obligatory in the case of kaafirs, because they have no faith to keep them from doing that which Allaah has forbidden. It is not permissible for you or any other woman to obey parents or anyone else in doing that which Allaah and His Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) have forbidden. Allaah says in Soorat al-Ahzaab (interpretation of the meaning): “And when you ask (his wives) for anything you want, ask them from behind a screen, that is purer for your hearts and for their hearts” [al...

Question I am a woman living in a non-Muslim country because of my husband’s work. I want to bring a servant from another country to help me in the house. Is it permissible for me to bring her without a mahram?. Answer Praise be to Allaah. Bringing a servant without a mahram is an act of disobedience towards the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), because it was narrated in a saheeh report that he said: “No woman should travel without a mahram.” And because bringing her without a mahram may be a cause of her being a source of fitnah (temptation) and exposing her to fitnah herself. That which may cause fitnah is forbidden, because that which may lead to something haraam is also haraam. With regard to the fact that some people take this matter lightly, this is a calamity, and their saying that this is necessary does not count as proof, because even if we assume that it is necessary to bring servants, it is not necessary to bring them without mahrams. Similarl...

Question I want to ask to what degree the husband’s duties towards his wife’s family extend. My question is because I am suffering a serious problem with my husband, because he treated my mother very badly when she came to visit us (because of an argument that took place between my mother-in-law and my mother); in the end my husband virtually threw my mother out. As a result of that, I had to leave the house with my mother, against my husband’s wishes as he wanted me to stay with him. Please note that I used to live in another country and I traveled with my mother to our country. My husband treats me very well, but I got angry when he treated her in this manner. He regretted it the next day, but she will not forgive him. Is what I did correct, or did I fail to obey my husband as enjoined by Allaah, may He be exalted and glorified?. Answer Praise be to Allaah. Firstly: The husband should uphold ties with his wife’s family and treat them well. This is part of treating his wife kindly, be...

Question Is it lawful to kiss and embrace (wives) in front of other wives. Is it haram if the other wife can see when having intimacy (not intercourse) with them with clothes on?. Answer Praise be to Allaah. Allah has prescribed the rulings of sharee‘ah as guidance for mankind, and there is nothing in them that is off-putting or shameful. Rather it is guidance to the best of conduct. The one who ponders these rulings and understands them will not need to think hard in order to work out that what is mentioned in the question about the husband kissing and touching his wife in the presence of his other wives is undoubtedly an abhorrent and off-putting action which is contrary to sharee‘ah, decency and modesty. Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allah have mercy on him) said: If a person is uncertain about the ruling on something, whether it is permissible or forbidden, he should look at where it leads to and whether there are any bad consequences. If there are any clearly negative consequences that outwe...

Question What is your opinion about a person who falsely divorces his wife, i.e. formally having the divorce contract, without saying the word of talaaq actually to her? This enables him to marry a European woman in order to get a residency. Then he will divorce the European woman and return his first wife to him afterwards. What is the ruling on this matter?. Answer Praise be to Allaah. Firstly: Marriage is a serious covenant and it is one of the most important rulings of sharee’ah, by means of which intimacy becomes permissible and rights such as the mahr (dowry) and inheritance are proven, and children are attributed to their father, and other rulings. By means of divorce, a woman becomes haraam for her husband and is deprived of inheritance, and she becomes permissible for other men to marry, subject to well known conditions. Our aim in explaining all this is to alert the Muslims to the necessity of not using these two contracts in ways other than that which has been prescribed by ...